Matt Ramsey
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I was wondering if any history buffs would know weather or not there was a female equivalent to "Droit du seigneur"? In english it means Law of the Lord
From wikipedia:
"Droit du seigneur ('lord's right'), also known as "ius primae noctis" ('right of the first night'), was a supposed legal right in medieval Europe, allowing feudal lords to have sexual relations with subordinate women, in particular, on the wedding nights of the women."
In addition:
"A majority of historians have concluded that the idea is a myth, and that all references to it are from later periods. Over the centuries, it became commonly portrayed in European literature as a practice that had occurred in earlier times or other places. In practice, it may have been the feudal lords using their power and influence over serfs to sexually exploit the women free of consequences, as opposed to a legitimate legal right."
The female equivalent would be called "Loi de dame", and there is grounds to believe in an "unofficial " Law of the Lady" as there are stories of white women who sexually abused black male slaves (https://www.aaihs.org/sexual-violence-against-enslaved-men/) and the biblical tale of
Potiphar's wife attempting to seduce Joseph the slave, and then trying to force herself on him when he rejected her (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_and_Potiphar's_Wife_(etching) ).
However these would be women abusing their station via thier husband's social status. What I'm asking is has there ever been a time in society where such a thing as Loi de dame could or did exist?
From wikipedia:
"Droit du seigneur ('lord's right'), also known as "ius primae noctis" ('right of the first night'), was a supposed legal right in medieval Europe, allowing feudal lords to have sexual relations with subordinate women, in particular, on the wedding nights of the women."
In addition:
"A majority of historians have concluded that the idea is a myth, and that all references to it are from later periods. Over the centuries, it became commonly portrayed in European literature as a practice that had occurred in earlier times or other places. In practice, it may have been the feudal lords using their power and influence over serfs to sexually exploit the women free of consequences, as opposed to a legitimate legal right."
The female equivalent would be called "Loi de dame", and there is grounds to believe in an "unofficial " Law of the Lady" as there are stories of white women who sexually abused black male slaves (https://www.aaihs.org/sexual-violence-against-enslaved-men/) and the biblical tale of
Potiphar's wife attempting to seduce Joseph the slave, and then trying to force herself on him when he rejected her (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_and_Potiphar's_Wife_(etching) ).
However these would be women abusing their station via thier husband's social status. What I'm asking is has there ever been a time in society where such a thing as Loi de dame could or did exist?
